PRETESTS
Chemistry
1. A quantitative observation is known as a(n)
(A) theory
(B)measurement
(C)hypothesis
(D)experiment
2. Diamond is a(n) _____.
(A)element
(B)compound
C)homogeneous mixture (solution)
(D)heterogeneous mixture
E)energy
3. Einsteinium was named for a _____.
(A)person
(B)place
(C)characteristic
(D)god
(E)philosophy
4. In Type I binary compounds in which the metal can have only one possible charge, the name of the metal is the name of the cation.
(A)true
(B)false
5. With simple anions, the root name of the element is followed by the suffix (ending) _____.
(A)-ate
(B)-ite
(C)-ide
(D)-ote
(E)-ous
6. The SI unit for volume is the _____.
(A) liter
(B)milliliter
(C)deciliter
(D)cubic centimeter
E)cubic meter
7. The molar mass for carbon dioxide (CO2) is ____ g.
(A)12
(B)28
(C)44
(D)32
(E)88
8. A 17.6-g sample of carbon dioxide contains _____ mole(s) of molecules.
(A)2.50
(B)2.5
(C)0.4
(D)0.400
(E)774
9. Coefficients are the numbers written _____ the formulas in a chemical equation.
(A)in front of
(B)to the lower right of elemental symbols in
(C)to the upper right of elemental symbols in
(D)to the lower left of elemental symbols in
(E)in back of
10. The reactants are always written on the left-hand side of a chemical equation.
(A)true
(B)False
11. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is _____. 2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) --> 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E)acid-base neutralization
12. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is ______. HC2H3O2(aq) + LiOH(aq) --> H2O(l) + LiC2H3O2(aq)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E) acid-base neutralization
13. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.00 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ g of water vapor could be produced. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)5.60
(B)101
(C)28.0
(D)504
(E)72.0
14. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.0 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ moles of propane would be
consumed ? C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A) 7.0
(B) 35
(C) 1.4
(D) 14
(E) 3.5
15. An exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings.
(A) true
(B) false
16. The quality of energy is increased as energy is used.
(A) true
(B) false
17. There are many excited states for an atom, but only one ground state.
(A) true
B) false
18. A(n) _____ is a region of space where the electron is likely to be found.
(A) orbit
(B) quantum state
(C) wave
(D) orbital
(E) energy state
19. When there are four groups of electrons around the central atom, but only three atoms to which it is bonded (for example, PH3), the shape of the molecule can be described as _____.
(A) linear
(B) angular
(C) trigonal planar
(D) trigonal pyramidal
(E) tetrahedral
20. The _____ structure is a representation of a molecule that shows how the valence electrons are distributed among the atoms of the molecule.
(A) Lewis
(B) de Broglie
(C) molecular
(D) Bohr
(E) ionic
21. One mole of methane occupies 22.4 L at STP. Two moles of methane occupy _____ at STP.
(A) 11.2 L
(B) 22.4 L
(C) 33.6 L
(D) 1.00 L
(E) 44.8 L
22. The weakest type of forces between particles (intermolecular forces) are _____.
(A) metallic bonds
(B) dipole-dipole forces
(C) ionic bonds
(D) London dispersion forces
(E) covalent bonds
23. Mass percent is calculated as the mass of the solute divided by the mass of the solution multiplied by 100.
(A) true
(B) false
24. The pOH of 0.10 M HNO3 is _____ the pOH of 0.10 M CH3COOH.
(A) the same as
(B) less than
(C) greater than
25. For the reaction below, initially at equilibrium, the equilibrium will _____ when N2(g) is added. 2NO(g) <--> N2(g) + O2(g)
(A) not shift
(B) shift left
(C) shift right
26. Nucleons are protons and neutrons.
(A) true
(B) false
27. Radioactive decay processes are _____.
(A) always spontaneous
(B) sometimes spontaneous, sometimes induced
(C) always induced
28. Aromatic hydrocarbons may have either chain or ring structures.
(A) true
(B) false
29. CHCl=CHCH2CH3 is a _____.
(A) haloaromatic
(B) haloalkane
(C) haloalkyne
(D) haloalkene
(E) haloalkyl
30. Of the following, _____ is not a biologically important polymer.
(A) starch
(B) cellulose
(C) DNA
(D) cholesterol
(E) insulin
Geography
1. Graphs and charts of data can be used for __________.
a. testing the independent variable b. formation of a hypothesis c. data analysis d. deciding on a control
2. A(n) __________ is an explanation that is based on the results of repeated experiments.
a. theory b. law c. control d. hypothesis
3. A __________ explains what the symbols of a map represent.
a. title b. legend c. projection d. scale
4. What type of projection is best for mapping small areas or weather maps?
a. Mercator projection b. a topographic map c. conic projection d. gnomonic projection
5. What is the attractive force between two particles of opposite charge called?
a. a compound force b. an ionic bond c. an isotope d. a covalent bond
6. What are the common minerals called?
a. igneous minerals b. rock-forming minerals c. abundant minerals d. crystal minerals
7. What happens to calcium carbonate when it is exposed to hydrochloric acid?
a. It breaks. b. It fizzes. c. It turns color. d. It looses luster.
8. What process explains why a molten magma often is a mix of molten rock and crystals?
a. Bowen's reaction series b. partial melting c. plate tectonics d. melting points
9.Oceanic crust melts at __________ than continental crust.
a. higher temperatures b. the same temperature c. higher pressures and lower temperatures d. lower temperatures
10,
How are clastic rocks classified? a. metamorphic grade b. particle size c. method of depostion d. mineralogy
11.
What is the erosion by running water in a small channel on the side of a slope called?
\a. a cutbank b. a stream bed c. an alluvial fan d. rill erosion
12.
Unlike water, wind commonly can __________.
a. put sediment into suspension b. abrade particles c. move sediment uphill d. move sediment downhill
13.What are scratches left in rock by a glacier called?
a. marks b. cirques c. drumlins d. striations
14.
What are large particles that are rolled or pushed on the bed of the stream called?
a. bed load b. suspended load c. discharge d. runoff
15.__________ is the measure of the volume of stream water that flows over a certain location over a given amount of time.
a. bed load b. runoff c. velocity d. discharge
16. Water can move through soil because of the soil's __________.
a. porosity b. permeability c. impermeable layer d. well-sorted material
17. What is an isochron?
a. a line on a seafloor map that connects points of equal elevation b. a part of a mid-ocean ridge c. a point on a seafloor map that has a magnetic reversal d. a line on a seafloor map that connects points of equal age
18. How are the convection currents set in motion?
a. slab push b. the heat from radioactive decay c. spreading mid-ocean ridges d. slab push and ridge pull
19. Why does magma move up to and through Earth's crust?
a. It is more dense than surrounding rock. b. It is cooler than the crust. c. It is more viscous than ocean water. d. It is less dense than surrounding rock.
20. __________ is the force per unit area acting on a material. a. Strain b. Stress c. Rotation d. Shear
21. Where does an earthquake originate?
a. at the P-wave b. at Earth's inner core c. at the epicenter d. at the focus
22. Continental crust is made mostly of __________ and oceanic crust is made mostly of __________.
a. granite, rhyolite b. basalt, granite c. granite, basalt d. grabbo, basalt
23. The Hawaiian Islands are made of volcanoes that formed due to __________.
a. convergence at plate boundaries b. divergence at plate boundaries c. hot spot activity d. uplift
24. What method is used to determine the exact age of a rock or fossil?
a. radiometric dating b. relative age dating c. the principle of superposition d. dendrochronology
25. .What is an erosional contact between sedimentary and nonsedimentary rocks called?
a. a lava flow b. a fault c. a nonconformity d. a disconformity
26.
The oldest rocks on Earth are __________.
a. 3.5 billion years old b. 1 to 2 billion years old c. 3.96 to 3.8 billion years old d. 1.6 to 1.8 million years old
27. What is the name of the first supercontinent?
a. Rodinia b. Baltica c. Laurentia d. Pangaea
28. Which is a nonrenewable resource?
a. phosphorus b. copper c. air d. trees
29. Aggregates, bedrock, and metallic minerals are all __________.
a. depleted resources b. hydrothermal ores c. renewable resources d. land resources
30. Wood is used by __________ people throughout the world as the primary source of fuel for heating and cooking.
a. 100 million b. 9 billion c. 1.5 billion d. 1 million
Biology
1. What term describe an explanation that a scientist offers to answer a scientific question?
(A) conclusion
(B) independent variable
(C) dependent variable
(D) hypothesis
2. What condition in an experiment does a biologist manipulate?
(A) independent variable
(B) dependent variable
(C) control
(D) constant
3) How is a saturated fatty acid different from an unsaturated fatty acid?
(A) Saturated fatty acids contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond.
(B) Saturated fatty acids are found only in oils.
(C) Carbons in saturated fatty acids are bonded together only with covalent bonds.
(D) Saturated fatty acids contain only carbon-carbon single bonds.
4. What kind of bonds link the monomers in a protein?
A) ionic bonds
(B) hydrogen bonds
(C) peptide bonds
(D) protein bonds
5. Which part(s) of a phospholipid is hydrophobic?
(A) phosphate group and glycerol head
(B) fatty acid tails
(C) phosphate group only
(D) the entire phospholipid molecule
6. What term describes the movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration?
(A) passive transport
(B) active transport
(C) energy transport
D) concentration gradient
7. What happens when an oncogene mutates?
(A) The cell cycle slows down.
(B) The cell cycle stops.
(C) The cell cycle speeds up.
(D) The body produces carcinogens.
8. What are growth factors?
(A) nutrients that give you energy
(B) proteins that are produced by cancer cells
(C) proteins that stimulate cell division
(D) compounds such as vitamins that help you grow
9. What term describes the kind of stem cell that can grow into all cell types in the body?
(A) totipotent
(B) pleuripotent
(C) multipotent
(D) adult stem cell
10. Which is not a characteristic of stem cells?
(A) can develop into all cell types after they become specialized
(B) divide and renew for long periods of time
(C) remain undifferentiated in form for long periods of time
(D) can develop into specialized cell types
11. What resulted when Mendel crossed a purple-flowered plant with a white-flowered plant?
(A) Some offspring had purple flowers and some had white flowers.
(B) All the offspring had white flowers.
(C) All the offspring had purple flowers.
(D) All the offspring had pink flowers.
12. Which of the following did not play an important role in developing Mendel's conclusions?
(A) control over the breeding of pea plants
(B) leaf structure in pea plants
(C) use of purebred plants
(D) observation of "either-or" traits that appeared in only two forms
13. Which is Mendel's law of independent assortment?
(A) Allele pairs separate independently during meiosis.
(B) Allele pairs separate independently during mitosis.
(C) Different allele pairs are inherited together.
(D) Different alleles of the same gene are found at the same locus.
14. What term describes the most common phenotype in a species?
(A) variation
(B) wild type
(C) purebred
(D) homozygote
15. What conclusion about gene linkage did Thomas Hunt Morgan reach?
(A) Linked traits are on different chromosomes.
(B) Fruit flies have eight linkage groups.
(C) Genes assort independently during meiosis.
(D) Chromosomes assort independently during meiosis.
16. How is the distance between two genes related to the frequency of crossing over?
(A) The farther apart two genes are, the more likely they will be separated by crossing over.
(B) The closer two genes are, the more likely they are to be separated by crossing over.
(C) The distance between two genes increases when crossing over increases.
(D) The distance between two genes decreases when crossing over increases.
17. What does "semiconservative replication" mean?
(A) Each new double helix contains two new strands.
(B) Each new double helix contains one original strand and one new strand.
(C) Each new double helix contains two original strands.
(D)One new double helix contains two original strands, and the other double helix contains two new strands.
18. What is the goal of DNA replication?
(A) to make RNA
(B) to ensure that every cell has a complete set of identical DNA
(C) to make proteins
(D) to complete the cell cycle
19. What happens if the mRNA reading frame is changed?
(A) Nothing happens because an amino acid is represented by several codons.
(B) Translation stops.(
(C) The mRNA is destroyed.
(D) The amino acid sequence of the resulting protein changes.
20. What forms the peptide bonds that link amino acids in a protein?
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) the ribosome
(D) DNA polymerase
21. How many bases are affected in a point mutation?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) Every base following the mutation.
22. What determines how a cell in an embryo will differentiate?
(A) the amount of nutrients it receives
(B) when it was formed in the embryo
(C) its location within the embryo
(D) the kind of parent cell that produced it
23. Which of the following is not a main principle of the theory of natural selection?
(A) variation
(B) adaptation
(C) overproduction
(D) sexual reproductio
24 . How do artificial selection and natural selection differ?
(A) In artificial selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
(B) In natural selection, traits that are useful to humans are inherited.
(C) In natural selection, humans act as the selecting agent.
(D) In natural selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
25. What is a transitional fossil?
(A) a fossil that shows vestigial structures
(B) a fossil that has characteristics of two groups of organisms
(C) a fossil that comes from an organism that is extinct
(D) a fossil that is being changed by geological forces
26. What term describes a consumer?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) producer
(D) chemosynthetic
27. What kind of organism provides the basis for an ecosystem's energy?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) consumer
(D) scavenger
28. Which is not a derived character of all animals?
(A) haploid
(B) multicellular
(C) heterotrophic
(D) contain collagen
29. How is the muscular system involved in thermoregulation?
(A) The heart muscle beats faster to warm the body.
(B) Muscles are needed to release the hormones that increase metabolism.
(C) If the body gets too cold, muscles cause shivering, which warms the body.
(D) Muscles open skin pores so heat can enter the body.
30. What do the sensory receptors in hair cells detect?
(A) sounds
(B) vibrations
(C) light
(D) chemicals
ANOTHER BIOLOGY *FROM LAUSD STANDARDS*
Biology Released Test Questions This is a sample of California Standards Test questions. This is NOT an operational test form. Test scores cannot be projected based on performance on released test questions. Copyright © 2004 California Department of Education. C A L I F O R N I A S TA N DA R D S T E S T
■1 Two students were testing the amount of fertilizer that would best promote the growth of strawberries in a garden. Which of the following could be an unavoidable source of experimental error? A length of the study B variation in the strawberry plants C the cost of watering the plants D fertilization during the study
■2 A computer model of cellular mitosis can simulate the aspects of cellular division quite well. However, microscopic observation of actual cellular mitosis can improve understanding because actual observations A may reveal greater unknown complexities. B are easier than a computer model to view. C are the same each time. D may provide division events in sequence.
■4 The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called A perforated. B semi-permeable. C non-conductive. D permeable .
■6 Which molecule in plant cells first captures the radiant energy from sunlight? A glucose B carbon dioxide C chlorophyll D adenosine triphosphate
■7 A cell from heart muscle would probably havean unusually high proportion of A lysosomes. B mitochondria. C mRNA. D Golgi bodies.
■8 If a corn plant has a genotype of Ttyy, what are the possible genetic combinations that could be present in a single grain of pollen from this plant? A Ty, ty B TY, ty C TY, Ty, ty D Ty, ty, tY, TY
■9 In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia eyes (r) is recessive. What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed heterozygous flies (Rr)? A RR only B rr only C Rr and rr only D RR, Rr, and rr only
■10 In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is due to a recessive allele (d) of a particular gene, and normal hearing is due to its dominant allele (D). What percentage of the offspring of a normal heterozygous (Dd) dog and a deaf dog (dd) would be expected to have normal hearing? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100%
■13 Which of these would most likely cause a mutation? A the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum B the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA C the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus D the release of messenger RNA from DNA
■14 Although there are a limited number of amino acids, many different types of proteins exist because the A size of a given amino acid can vary. B chemical composition of a given amino acid can vary. C sequence and number of amino acids is different. D same amino acid can have many different properties. 4-5
■15 5' G T A _ _ _ A A 3' 3' C A T G C A T T 5' This segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which three nucleotides have been deleted. A repair enzyme would replace them with A CGT. B GCA. C CTG. D GTA.
■16 The bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects plants, and a portion of its DNA is inserted into the plant’s chromosomes. This causes the plant to produce gall cells, which manufacture amino acids that the bacterium uses as food. This process is a natural example of A polyploidy. B genetic manipulation. C grafting. D hybridization.
■17 Scientists found that, over a period of 200 years, a mountain pond was transformed into a meadow. During that time, several communities of organisms were replaced by different communities. Which of these best explains why new communities were able to replace older communities? A The original species became extinct. B Species in the older community died from old age. C The abiotic characteristics of the habitat changed. D Diseases that killed the older organisms disappeared.
■18 Rabbits introduced into Australia over 100 years ago have become a serious pest to farmers. Rabbit populations increased so much that they displaced many native species of plant eaters. What is the most logical explanation for their increased numbers? A Rabbits have a high death rate. B There are few effective predators. C Additional rabbit species have been introduced. D There is an increase in rabbit competitors.
■19 Complete burning of plant material returns carbon primarily to the A herbivores. B water. C vegetation. D atmosphere.
■21 In carrier pigeons there is a rare inherited condition that causes the death of the chicks before hatching. In order for this disease to be passed from generation to generation there must be parent birds that A are heterozygous for the disease. B have the disease themselves. C produce new mutations for this disease. D are closely interbred.
■22 Which of these best illustrates natural selection? A An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully. B A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate. C A community whose members work together utilizes all existing resources and migratory routes. D The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.
■23 A species of finch has been studied on one of the geographically isolated Galapagos Islands for many years. Since the island is small, the lineage of every bird for several generations is known. This allows a family tree of each bird to be developed. Some family groups have survived and others have died out. The groups that survive probably have A interbred with other species. B inherited some advantageous variations. C found new places on the island to live. D been attacked by more predators.
■24 A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period. How will genetic drift probably affect this population? A It will accelerate the appearance of new traits. B It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits. C It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits. D It will reduce genetic diversity.
■25 A single species of squirrel evolved over time into two species, each on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon. This change was most likely due to A higher mutation rates on one side. B low genetic diversity in the initial population. C the isolation of the two groups. D differences in reproductive rates. 4-6
■26 In order for the body to maintain homeostasis, the chemical decomposition of food to produce energy must be followed by A water intake. B muscle contractions. C waste removal. D nervous impulses.
■27 The respiratory system depends on the nervous system for signals to A enhance the amount of available oxygen in the lungs. B coordinate muscles controlling breathing. C release enzymes to increase the exchange of gases. D exchange gases with the circulatory system.
■28 Striking the tendon just below the kneecap causes the lower leg to jerk. Moving an object quickly toward the face can cause the eyes to blink shut. These are examples of A learned responses. B short-term memory. C reflex reactions. D sensory overload.
■29 The Sabin vaccine is a liquid containing weakened polio viruses. Vaccinated individuals become protected against polio because the weakened viruses A prevent further viral invasion. B induce an inflammatory response. C promote production of antibodies. D are too weak to cause illness.
■30 Which of the following require a host cell because they are not able to make proteins on their own? A blue-green algae B bacteria C protozoans D viruses
Question Number Correct Answer Standard Year of Test 1 B Biology I&E 1b 2003 2 A Biology I & E 1g 2004 4 B Biology 1a 2004 6 C Biology 1f 2003 7 B Biology 1g 2004 8 A Biology 2 2004 9 D Biology 2g 2003 10 C Biology 3a 2003 13 B Biology 4c 2003 14 C Biology 4e 2004 15 A Biology 5b 2004 16 B Biology 5c 2003 17 C Biology 6b 2003 18 B Biology 6c 2004 19 D Biology 6d 2003 21 A Biology 7b 2004 22 A Biology 7 d 2004 23 B Biology 8a 2004 24 D Biology 8c 2004 25 C Biology 8d 2003 26 C Biology 9a 2003 27 B Biology 9b 2003 28 C Biology 9b 2004 29 C Biology 10c 2004 30 D Biology 10d 2003
Jr. High Science
(Note: I will have to remake this pretest as it was originally designed as a "general science" pretest whicih would be given to 9th graders prior to taking either biology or chemistry which I have taken these questions from) In other words this pretest I feel is harder than it should be.
1) The movement of particles from a less crowded area to a more crowded area requires
a) sunlight b) energy c) a membrane d) osmosis
2) Eukaryotic cells
a) do not divide b) undergo binary fission c) uyndergo mitosis d) have cell walls
3) Why do the leaves of some deciduous trees change color in the fall
a) more of the colored pigments enter the leaves in the fall
b) cold weather causes chlorophyll to change color
c) chlorophyll changes into different colors in cold weather
d) chlorophyll breaks down, revealing pigments that were always there
4) A plant that has both male and female reproductive structures is able to
a) self-replicate
b) self-pollinate
c) change colors
d) none of the above
5) Genes are found on
a) chromosomes
b) proteins
c) alleles
d) sex cells
6) Why do identical twins have the same genotype?
a) they have the same set of alleles
b) they come from two similar eggs
c) they look exactly alike
d) they hae heterozygous genotypes
7) changes in the type or order of the bases in DNA are called
a) nucleotides
b) mutations
c) RNA
d) genes
8) Members of the same ______ can mate with one another to produce offspring (fill in the blank)
9) Unlike the atmosphere today, the atmosphere 3.5 billion yuear ago did not contain
a) carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen
c) gases
d) ozone
10. The reactants are always written on the left-hand side of a chemical equation.
(A)true
(B)False
11. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is _____. 2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) --> 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E)acid-base neutralization
12. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is ______. HC2H3O2(aq) + LiOH(aq) --> H2O(l) + LiC2H3O2(aq)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E) acid-base neutralization
13. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.00 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ g of water vapor could be produced. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)5.60
(B)101
(C)28.0
(D)504
(E)72.0
14. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.0 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ moles of propane would be
consumed ? C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A) 7.0
(B) 35
(C) 1.4
(D) 14
(E) 3.5
15. An exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings.
(A) true
(B) false
16. The quality of energy is increased as energy is used.
(A) true
(B) false
17. There are many excited states for an atom, but only one ground state.
(A) true
B) false
18. A(n) _____ is a region of space where the electron is likely to be found.
(A) orbit
(B) quantum state
(C) wave
(D) orbital
(E) energy state
19. When there are four groups of electrons around the central atom, but only three atoms to which it is bonded (for example, PH3), the shape of the molecule can be described as _____.
(A) linear
(B) angular
(C) trigonal planar
(D) trigonal pyramidal
(E) tetrahedral
20. The _____ structure is a representation of a molecule that shows how the valence electrons are distributed among the atoms of the molecule.
(A) Lewis
(B) de Broglie
(C) molecular
(D) Bohr
(E) ionic
21. One mole of methane occupies 22.4 L at STP. Two moles of methane occupy _____ at STP.
(A) 11.2 L
(B) 22.4 L
(C) 33.6 L
(D) 1.00 L
(E) 44.8 L
22. The weakest type of forces between particles (intermolecular forces) are _____.
(A) metallic bonds
(B) dipole-dipole forces
(C) ionic bonds
(D) London dispersion forces
(E) covalent bonds
23. Which of the following is not a main principle of the theory of natural selection?
(A) variation
(B) adaptation
(C) overproduction
(D) sexual reproductio
24 . How do artificial selection and natural selection differ?
(A) In artificial selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
(B) In natural selection, traits that are useful to humans are inherited.
(C) In natural selection, humans act as the selecting agent.
(D) In natural selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
25. What is a transitional fossil?
(A) a fossil that shows vestigial structures
(B) a fossil that has characteristics of two groups of organisms
(C) a fossil that comes from an organism that is extinct
(D) a fossil that is being changed by geological forces
26. What term describes a consumer?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) producer
(D) chemosynthetic
27. What kind of organism provides the basis for an ecosystem's energy?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) consumer
(D) scavenger
28. Which is not a derived character of all animals?
(A) haploid
(B) multicellular
(C) heterotrophic
(D) contain collagen
29. How is the muscular system involved in thermoregulation?
(A) The heart muscle beats faster to warm the body.
(B) Muscles are needed to release the hormones that increase metabolism.
(C) If the body gets too cold, muscles cause shivering, which warms the body.
(D) Muscles open skin pores so heat can enter the body.
30. What do the sensory receptors in hair cells detect?
(A) sounds
(B) vibrations
(C) light
(D) chemicals
PHYSICS- gave alliance benchmark tests
Chemistry
1. A quantitative observation is known as a(n)
(A) theory
(B)measurement
(C)hypothesis
(D)experiment
2. Diamond is a(n) _____.
(A)element
(B)compound
C)homogeneous mixture (solution)
(D)heterogeneous mixture
E)energy
3. Einsteinium was named for a _____.
(A)person
(B)place
(C)characteristic
(D)god
(E)philosophy
4. In Type I binary compounds in which the metal can have only one possible charge, the name of the metal is the name of the cation.
(A)true
(B)false
5. With simple anions, the root name of the element is followed by the suffix (ending) _____.
(A)-ate
(B)-ite
(C)-ide
(D)-ote
(E)-ous
6. The SI unit for volume is the _____.
(A) liter
(B)milliliter
(C)deciliter
(D)cubic centimeter
E)cubic meter
7. The molar mass for carbon dioxide (CO2) is ____ g.
(A)12
(B)28
(C)44
(D)32
(E)88
8. A 17.6-g sample of carbon dioxide contains _____ mole(s) of molecules.
(A)2.50
(B)2.5
(C)0.4
(D)0.400
(E)774
9. Coefficients are the numbers written _____ the formulas in a chemical equation.
(A)in front of
(B)to the lower right of elemental symbols in
(C)to the upper right of elemental symbols in
(D)to the lower left of elemental symbols in
(E)in back of
10. The reactants are always written on the left-hand side of a chemical equation.
(A)true
(B)False
11. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is _____. 2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) --> 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E)acid-base neutralization
12. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is ______. HC2H3O2(aq) + LiOH(aq) --> H2O(l) + LiC2H3O2(aq)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E) acid-base neutralization
13. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.00 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ g of water vapor could be produced. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)5.60
(B)101
(C)28.0
(D)504
(E)72.0
14. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.0 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ moles of propane would be
consumed ? C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A) 7.0
(B) 35
(C) 1.4
(D) 14
(E) 3.5
15. An exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings.
(A) true
(B) false
16. The quality of energy is increased as energy is used.
(A) true
(B) false
17. There are many excited states for an atom, but only one ground state.
(A) true
B) false
18. A(n) _____ is a region of space where the electron is likely to be found.
(A) orbit
(B) quantum state
(C) wave
(D) orbital
(E) energy state
19. When there are four groups of electrons around the central atom, but only three atoms to which it is bonded (for example, PH3), the shape of the molecule can be described as _____.
(A) linear
(B) angular
(C) trigonal planar
(D) trigonal pyramidal
(E) tetrahedral
20. The _____ structure is a representation of a molecule that shows how the valence electrons are distributed among the atoms of the molecule.
(A) Lewis
(B) de Broglie
(C) molecular
(D) Bohr
(E) ionic
21. One mole of methane occupies 22.4 L at STP. Two moles of methane occupy _____ at STP.
(A) 11.2 L
(B) 22.4 L
(C) 33.6 L
(D) 1.00 L
(E) 44.8 L
22. The weakest type of forces between particles (intermolecular forces) are _____.
(A) metallic bonds
(B) dipole-dipole forces
(C) ionic bonds
(D) London dispersion forces
(E) covalent bonds
23. Mass percent is calculated as the mass of the solute divided by the mass of the solution multiplied by 100.
(A) true
(B) false
24. The pOH of 0.10 M HNO3 is _____ the pOH of 0.10 M CH3COOH.
(A) the same as
(B) less than
(C) greater than
25. For the reaction below, initially at equilibrium, the equilibrium will _____ when N2(g) is added. 2NO(g) <--> N2(g) + O2(g)
(A) not shift
(B) shift left
(C) shift right
26. Nucleons are protons and neutrons.
(A) true
(B) false
27. Radioactive decay processes are _____.
(A) always spontaneous
(B) sometimes spontaneous, sometimes induced
(C) always induced
28. Aromatic hydrocarbons may have either chain or ring structures.
(A) true
(B) false
29. CHCl=CHCH2CH3 is a _____.
(A) haloaromatic
(B) haloalkane
(C) haloalkyne
(D) haloalkene
(E) haloalkyl
30. Of the following, _____ is not a biologically important polymer.
(A) starch
(B) cellulose
(C) DNA
(D) cholesterol
(E) insulin
Geography
1. Graphs and charts of data can be used for __________.
a. testing the independent variable b. formation of a hypothesis c. data analysis d. deciding on a control
2. A(n) __________ is an explanation that is based on the results of repeated experiments.
a. theory b. law c. control d. hypothesis
3. A __________ explains what the symbols of a map represent.
a. title b. legend c. projection d. scale
4. What type of projection is best for mapping small areas or weather maps?
a. Mercator projection b. a topographic map c. conic projection d. gnomonic projection
5. What is the attractive force between two particles of opposite charge called?
a. a compound force b. an ionic bond c. an isotope d. a covalent bond
6. What are the common minerals called?
a. igneous minerals b. rock-forming minerals c. abundant minerals d. crystal minerals
7. What happens to calcium carbonate when it is exposed to hydrochloric acid?
a. It breaks. b. It fizzes. c. It turns color. d. It looses luster.
8. What process explains why a molten magma often is a mix of molten rock and crystals?
a. Bowen's reaction series b. partial melting c. plate tectonics d. melting points
9.Oceanic crust melts at __________ than continental crust.
a. higher temperatures b. the same temperature c. higher pressures and lower temperatures d. lower temperatures
10,
How are clastic rocks classified? a. metamorphic grade b. particle size c. method of depostion d. mineralogy
11.
What is the erosion by running water in a small channel on the side of a slope called?
\a. a cutbank b. a stream bed c. an alluvial fan d. rill erosion
12.
Unlike water, wind commonly can __________.
a. put sediment into suspension b. abrade particles c. move sediment uphill d. move sediment downhill
13.What are scratches left in rock by a glacier called?
a. marks b. cirques c. drumlins d. striations
14.
What are large particles that are rolled or pushed on the bed of the stream called?
a. bed load b. suspended load c. discharge d. runoff
15.__________ is the measure of the volume of stream water that flows over a certain location over a given amount of time.
a. bed load b. runoff c. velocity d. discharge
16. Water can move through soil because of the soil's __________.
a. porosity b. permeability c. impermeable layer d. well-sorted material
17. What is an isochron?
a. a line on a seafloor map that connects points of equal elevation b. a part of a mid-ocean ridge c. a point on a seafloor map that has a magnetic reversal d. a line on a seafloor map that connects points of equal age
18. How are the convection currents set in motion?
a. slab push b. the heat from radioactive decay c. spreading mid-ocean ridges d. slab push and ridge pull
19. Why does magma move up to and through Earth's crust?
a. It is more dense than surrounding rock. b. It is cooler than the crust. c. It is more viscous than ocean water. d. It is less dense than surrounding rock.
20. __________ is the force per unit area acting on a material. a. Strain b. Stress c. Rotation d. Shear
21. Where does an earthquake originate?
a. at the P-wave b. at Earth's inner core c. at the epicenter d. at the focus
22. Continental crust is made mostly of __________ and oceanic crust is made mostly of __________.
a. granite, rhyolite b. basalt, granite c. granite, basalt d. grabbo, basalt
23. The Hawaiian Islands are made of volcanoes that formed due to __________.
a. convergence at plate boundaries b. divergence at plate boundaries c. hot spot activity d. uplift
24. What method is used to determine the exact age of a rock or fossil?
a. radiometric dating b. relative age dating c. the principle of superposition d. dendrochronology
25. .What is an erosional contact between sedimentary and nonsedimentary rocks called?
a. a lava flow b. a fault c. a nonconformity d. a disconformity
26.
The oldest rocks on Earth are __________.
a. 3.5 billion years old b. 1 to 2 billion years old c. 3.96 to 3.8 billion years old d. 1.6 to 1.8 million years old
27. What is the name of the first supercontinent?
a. Rodinia b. Baltica c. Laurentia d. Pangaea
28. Which is a nonrenewable resource?
a. phosphorus b. copper c. air d. trees
29. Aggregates, bedrock, and metallic minerals are all __________.
a. depleted resources b. hydrothermal ores c. renewable resources d. land resources
30. Wood is used by __________ people throughout the world as the primary source of fuel for heating and cooking.
a. 100 million b. 9 billion c. 1.5 billion d. 1 million
Biology
1. What term describe an explanation that a scientist offers to answer a scientific question?
(A) conclusion
(B) independent variable
(C) dependent variable
(D) hypothesis
2. What condition in an experiment does a biologist manipulate?
(A) independent variable
(B) dependent variable
(C) control
(D) constant
3) How is a saturated fatty acid different from an unsaturated fatty acid?
(A) Saturated fatty acids contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond.
(B) Saturated fatty acids are found only in oils.
(C) Carbons in saturated fatty acids are bonded together only with covalent bonds.
(D) Saturated fatty acids contain only carbon-carbon single bonds.
4. What kind of bonds link the monomers in a protein?
A) ionic bonds
(B) hydrogen bonds
(C) peptide bonds
(D) protein bonds
5. Which part(s) of a phospholipid is hydrophobic?
(A) phosphate group and glycerol head
(B) fatty acid tails
(C) phosphate group only
(D) the entire phospholipid molecule
6. What term describes the movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration?
(A) passive transport
(B) active transport
(C) energy transport
D) concentration gradient
7. What happens when an oncogene mutates?
(A) The cell cycle slows down.
(B) The cell cycle stops.
(C) The cell cycle speeds up.
(D) The body produces carcinogens.
8. What are growth factors?
(A) nutrients that give you energy
(B) proteins that are produced by cancer cells
(C) proteins that stimulate cell division
(D) compounds such as vitamins that help you grow
9. What term describes the kind of stem cell that can grow into all cell types in the body?
(A) totipotent
(B) pleuripotent
(C) multipotent
(D) adult stem cell
10. Which is not a characteristic of stem cells?
(A) can develop into all cell types after they become specialized
(B) divide and renew for long periods of time
(C) remain undifferentiated in form for long periods of time
(D) can develop into specialized cell types
11. What resulted when Mendel crossed a purple-flowered plant with a white-flowered plant?
(A) Some offspring had purple flowers and some had white flowers.
(B) All the offspring had white flowers.
(C) All the offspring had purple flowers.
(D) All the offspring had pink flowers.
12. Which of the following did not play an important role in developing Mendel's conclusions?
(A) control over the breeding of pea plants
(B) leaf structure in pea plants
(C) use of purebred plants
(D) observation of "either-or" traits that appeared in only two forms
13. Which is Mendel's law of independent assortment?
(A) Allele pairs separate independently during meiosis.
(B) Allele pairs separate independently during mitosis.
(C) Different allele pairs are inherited together.
(D) Different alleles of the same gene are found at the same locus.
14. What term describes the most common phenotype in a species?
(A) variation
(B) wild type
(C) purebred
(D) homozygote
15. What conclusion about gene linkage did Thomas Hunt Morgan reach?
(A) Linked traits are on different chromosomes.
(B) Fruit flies have eight linkage groups.
(C) Genes assort independently during meiosis.
(D) Chromosomes assort independently during meiosis.
16. How is the distance between two genes related to the frequency of crossing over?
(A) The farther apart two genes are, the more likely they will be separated by crossing over.
(B) The closer two genes are, the more likely they are to be separated by crossing over.
(C) The distance between two genes increases when crossing over increases.
(D) The distance between two genes decreases when crossing over increases.
17. What does "semiconservative replication" mean?
(A) Each new double helix contains two new strands.
(B) Each new double helix contains one original strand and one new strand.
(C) Each new double helix contains two original strands.
(D)One new double helix contains two original strands, and the other double helix contains two new strands.
18. What is the goal of DNA replication?
(A) to make RNA
(B) to ensure that every cell has a complete set of identical DNA
(C) to make proteins
(D) to complete the cell cycle
19. What happens if the mRNA reading frame is changed?
(A) Nothing happens because an amino acid is represented by several codons.
(B) Translation stops.(
(C) The mRNA is destroyed.
(D) The amino acid sequence of the resulting protein changes.
20. What forms the peptide bonds that link amino acids in a protein?
(A) tRNA
(B) mRNA
(C) the ribosome
(D) DNA polymerase
21. How many bases are affected in a point mutation?
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) Every base following the mutation.
22. What determines how a cell in an embryo will differentiate?
(A) the amount of nutrients it receives
(B) when it was formed in the embryo
(C) its location within the embryo
(D) the kind of parent cell that produced it
23. Which of the following is not a main principle of the theory of natural selection?
(A) variation
(B) adaptation
(C) overproduction
(D) sexual reproductio
24 . How do artificial selection and natural selection differ?
(A) In artificial selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
(B) In natural selection, traits that are useful to humans are inherited.
(C) In natural selection, humans act as the selecting agent.
(D) In natural selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
25. What is a transitional fossil?
(A) a fossil that shows vestigial structures
(B) a fossil that has characteristics of two groups of organisms
(C) a fossil that comes from an organism that is extinct
(D) a fossil that is being changed by geological forces
26. What term describes a consumer?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) producer
(D) chemosynthetic
27. What kind of organism provides the basis for an ecosystem's energy?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) consumer
(D) scavenger
28. Which is not a derived character of all animals?
(A) haploid
(B) multicellular
(C) heterotrophic
(D) contain collagen
29. How is the muscular system involved in thermoregulation?
(A) The heart muscle beats faster to warm the body.
(B) Muscles are needed to release the hormones that increase metabolism.
(C) If the body gets too cold, muscles cause shivering, which warms the body.
(D) Muscles open skin pores so heat can enter the body.
30. What do the sensory receptors in hair cells detect?
(A) sounds
(B) vibrations
(C) light
(D) chemicals
ANOTHER BIOLOGY *FROM LAUSD STANDARDS*
Biology Released Test Questions This is a sample of California Standards Test questions. This is NOT an operational test form. Test scores cannot be projected based on performance on released test questions. Copyright © 2004 California Department of Education. C A L I F O R N I A S TA N DA R D S T E S T
■1 Two students were testing the amount of fertilizer that would best promote the growth of strawberries in a garden. Which of the following could be an unavoidable source of experimental error? A length of the study B variation in the strawberry plants C the cost of watering the plants D fertilization during the study
■2 A computer model of cellular mitosis can simulate the aspects of cellular division quite well. However, microscopic observation of actual cellular mitosis can improve understanding because actual observations A may reveal greater unknown complexities. B are easier than a computer model to view. C are the same each time. D may provide division events in sequence.
■4 The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called A perforated. B semi-permeable. C non-conductive. D permeable .
■6 Which molecule in plant cells first captures the radiant energy from sunlight? A glucose B carbon dioxide C chlorophyll D adenosine triphosphate
■7 A cell from heart muscle would probably havean unusually high proportion of A lysosomes. B mitochondria. C mRNA. D Golgi bodies.
■8 If a corn plant has a genotype of Ttyy, what are the possible genetic combinations that could be present in a single grain of pollen from this plant? A Ty, ty B TY, ty C TY, Ty, ty D Ty, ty, tY, TY
■9 In fruit flies, the gene for red eyes (R) is dominant and the gene for sepia eyes (r) is recessive. What are the possible combinations of genes in the offspring of two red-eyed heterozygous flies (Rr)? A RR only B rr only C Rr and rr only D RR, Rr, and rr only
■10 In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is due to a recessive allele (d) of a particular gene, and normal hearing is due to its dominant allele (D). What percentage of the offspring of a normal heterozygous (Dd) dog and a deaf dog (dd) would be expected to have normal hearing? A 0% B 25% C 50% D 100%
■13 Which of these would most likely cause a mutation? A the placement of ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum B the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA C the movement of transfer RNA out of the nucleus D the release of messenger RNA from DNA
■14 Although there are a limited number of amino acids, many different types of proteins exist because the A size of a given amino acid can vary. B chemical composition of a given amino acid can vary. C sequence and number of amino acids is different. D same amino acid can have many different properties. 4-5
■15 5' G T A _ _ _ A A 3' 3' C A T G C A T T 5' This segment of DNA has undergone a mutation in which three nucleotides have been deleted. A repair enzyme would replace them with A CGT. B GCA. C CTG. D GTA.
■16 The bacterium Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects plants, and a portion of its DNA is inserted into the plant’s chromosomes. This causes the plant to produce gall cells, which manufacture amino acids that the bacterium uses as food. This process is a natural example of A polyploidy. B genetic manipulation. C grafting. D hybridization.
■17 Scientists found that, over a period of 200 years, a mountain pond was transformed into a meadow. During that time, several communities of organisms were replaced by different communities. Which of these best explains why new communities were able to replace older communities? A The original species became extinct. B Species in the older community died from old age. C The abiotic characteristics of the habitat changed. D Diseases that killed the older organisms disappeared.
■18 Rabbits introduced into Australia over 100 years ago have become a serious pest to farmers. Rabbit populations increased so much that they displaced many native species of plant eaters. What is the most logical explanation for their increased numbers? A Rabbits have a high death rate. B There are few effective predators. C Additional rabbit species have been introduced. D There is an increase in rabbit competitors.
■19 Complete burning of plant material returns carbon primarily to the A herbivores. B water. C vegetation. D atmosphere.
■21 In carrier pigeons there is a rare inherited condition that causes the death of the chicks before hatching. In order for this disease to be passed from generation to generation there must be parent birds that A are heterozygous for the disease. B have the disease themselves. C produce new mutations for this disease. D are closely interbred.
■22 Which of these best illustrates natural selection? A An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully. B A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate. C A community whose members work together utilizes all existing resources and migratory routes. D The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.
■23 A species of finch has been studied on one of the geographically isolated Galapagos Islands for many years. Since the island is small, the lineage of every bird for several generations is known. This allows a family tree of each bird to be developed. Some family groups have survived and others have died out. The groups that survive probably have A interbred with other species. B inherited some advantageous variations. C found new places on the island to live. D been attacked by more predators.
■24 A small population of chimpanzees lives in a habitat that undergoes no changes for a long period. How will genetic drift probably affect this population? A It will accelerate the appearance of new traits. B It will promote the survival of chimpanzees with beneficial traits. C It will increase the number of alleles for specific traits. D It will reduce genetic diversity.
■25 A single species of squirrel evolved over time into two species, each on opposite sides of the Grand Canyon. This change was most likely due to A higher mutation rates on one side. B low genetic diversity in the initial population. C the isolation of the two groups. D differences in reproductive rates. 4-6
■26 In order for the body to maintain homeostasis, the chemical decomposition of food to produce energy must be followed by A water intake. B muscle contractions. C waste removal. D nervous impulses.
■27 The respiratory system depends on the nervous system for signals to A enhance the amount of available oxygen in the lungs. B coordinate muscles controlling breathing. C release enzymes to increase the exchange of gases. D exchange gases with the circulatory system.
■28 Striking the tendon just below the kneecap causes the lower leg to jerk. Moving an object quickly toward the face can cause the eyes to blink shut. These are examples of A learned responses. B short-term memory. C reflex reactions. D sensory overload.
■29 The Sabin vaccine is a liquid containing weakened polio viruses. Vaccinated individuals become protected against polio because the weakened viruses A prevent further viral invasion. B induce an inflammatory response. C promote production of antibodies. D are too weak to cause illness.
■30 Which of the following require a host cell because they are not able to make proteins on their own? A blue-green algae B bacteria C protozoans D viruses
Question Number Correct Answer Standard Year of Test 1 B Biology I&E 1b 2003 2 A Biology I & E 1g 2004 4 B Biology 1a 2004 6 C Biology 1f 2003 7 B Biology 1g 2004 8 A Biology 2 2004 9 D Biology 2g 2003 10 C Biology 3a 2003 13 B Biology 4c 2003 14 C Biology 4e 2004 15 A Biology 5b 2004 16 B Biology 5c 2003 17 C Biology 6b 2003 18 B Biology 6c 2004 19 D Biology 6d 2003 21 A Biology 7b 2004 22 A Biology 7 d 2004 23 B Biology 8a 2004 24 D Biology 8c 2004 25 C Biology 8d 2003 26 C Biology 9a 2003 27 B Biology 9b 2003 28 C Biology 9b 2004 29 C Biology 10c 2004 30 D Biology 10d 2003
Jr. High Science
(Note: I will have to remake this pretest as it was originally designed as a "general science" pretest whicih would be given to 9th graders prior to taking either biology or chemistry which I have taken these questions from) In other words this pretest I feel is harder than it should be.
1) The movement of particles from a less crowded area to a more crowded area requires
a) sunlight b) energy c) a membrane d) osmosis
2) Eukaryotic cells
a) do not divide b) undergo binary fission c) uyndergo mitosis d) have cell walls
3) Why do the leaves of some deciduous trees change color in the fall
a) more of the colored pigments enter the leaves in the fall
b) cold weather causes chlorophyll to change color
c) chlorophyll changes into different colors in cold weather
d) chlorophyll breaks down, revealing pigments that were always there
4) A plant that has both male and female reproductive structures is able to
a) self-replicate
b) self-pollinate
c) change colors
d) none of the above
5) Genes are found on
a) chromosomes
b) proteins
c) alleles
d) sex cells
6) Why do identical twins have the same genotype?
a) they have the same set of alleles
b) they come from two similar eggs
c) they look exactly alike
d) they hae heterozygous genotypes
7) changes in the type or order of the bases in DNA are called
a) nucleotides
b) mutations
c) RNA
d) genes
8) Members of the same ______ can mate with one another to produce offspring (fill in the blank)
9) Unlike the atmosphere today, the atmosphere 3.5 billion yuear ago did not contain
a) carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen
c) gases
d) ozone
10. The reactants are always written on the left-hand side of a chemical equation.
(A)true
(B)False
11. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is _____. 2CH3OH(l) + 3O2(g) --> 2CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E)acid-base neutralization
12. The type of reaction illustrated by the equation below is ______. HC2H3O2(aq) + LiOH(aq) --> H2O(l) + LiC2H3O2(aq)
(A)synthesis
(B)decomposition
(C)combustion
(D)precipitation
(E) acid-base neutralization
13. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.00 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ g of water vapor could be produced. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A)5.60
(B)101
(C)28.0
(D)504
(E)72.0
14. Consider the reaction below. If you start with 7.0 moles of C3H8 (propane) and 7.00 moles of O2, _____ moles of propane would be
consumed ? C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) --> 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g)
(A) 7.0
(B) 35
(C) 1.4
(D) 14
(E) 3.5
15. An exothermic reaction releases heat to the surroundings.
(A) true
(B) false
16. The quality of energy is increased as energy is used.
(A) true
(B) false
17. There are many excited states for an atom, but only one ground state.
(A) true
B) false
18. A(n) _____ is a region of space where the electron is likely to be found.
(A) orbit
(B) quantum state
(C) wave
(D) orbital
(E) energy state
19. When there are four groups of electrons around the central atom, but only three atoms to which it is bonded (for example, PH3), the shape of the molecule can be described as _____.
(A) linear
(B) angular
(C) trigonal planar
(D) trigonal pyramidal
(E) tetrahedral
20. The _____ structure is a representation of a molecule that shows how the valence electrons are distributed among the atoms of the molecule.
(A) Lewis
(B) de Broglie
(C) molecular
(D) Bohr
(E) ionic
21. One mole of methane occupies 22.4 L at STP. Two moles of methane occupy _____ at STP.
(A) 11.2 L
(B) 22.4 L
(C) 33.6 L
(D) 1.00 L
(E) 44.8 L
22. The weakest type of forces between particles (intermolecular forces) are _____.
(A) metallic bonds
(B) dipole-dipole forces
(C) ionic bonds
(D) London dispersion forces
(E) covalent bonds
23. Which of the following is not a main principle of the theory of natural selection?
(A) variation
(B) adaptation
(C) overproduction
(D) sexual reproductio
24 . How do artificial selection and natural selection differ?
(A) In artificial selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
(B) In natural selection, traits that are useful to humans are inherited.
(C) In natural selection, humans act as the selecting agent.
(D) In natural selection, the environment acts as the selecting agent.
25. What is a transitional fossil?
(A) a fossil that shows vestigial structures
(B) a fossil that has characteristics of two groups of organisms
(C) a fossil that comes from an organism that is extinct
(D) a fossil that is being changed by geological forces
26. What term describes a consumer?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) producer
(D) chemosynthetic
27. What kind of organism provides the basis for an ecosystem's energy?
(A) heterotroph
(B) autotroph
(C) consumer
(D) scavenger
28. Which is not a derived character of all animals?
(A) haploid
(B) multicellular
(C) heterotrophic
(D) contain collagen
29. How is the muscular system involved in thermoregulation?
(A) The heart muscle beats faster to warm the body.
(B) Muscles are needed to release the hormones that increase metabolism.
(C) If the body gets too cold, muscles cause shivering, which warms the body.
(D) Muscles open skin pores so heat can enter the body.
30. What do the sensory receptors in hair cells detect?
(A) sounds
(B) vibrations
(C) light
(D) chemicals
PHYSICS- gave alliance benchmark tests